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KMK Optometry

@KMKOptometry

Simple and effective professional education for modern ODs developed by the nation’s leader in optometry education. Chief Medical Editor Paul Hammond OD FAAO

linktr.ee/kmkoptometry.pro
Joined April 2016
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“First-line SLT was more effective than drops at preserving VF. SLT should be preferred as the first line of treatment in newly diagnosed OHT and OAG eyes.” 6 yr rate of VF progression in the LiGHT Trial - Ophthalmology vist.ly/4b4bn
Six-Year Rate of Visual Field Progression in the Laser in Glaucoma and Ocular Hypertension Trial

Six-Year Rate of Visual Field Progression in the Laser in Glaucoma and Ocular Hypertension Trial

To compare the 6-year rate of visual field (VF) progression in the 2 arms of the Laser in Ocular Hypertension and Glaucoma Trial (LiGHT), comparing selective laser trabeculoplasty (SLT) and drops as...

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Dompé's Program in NAION Selected for Landmark FDA Commissioner’s National Priority Voucher Program vist.ly/4avht
Image from KMK Optometry (@KMKOptometry)
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This patient couldn’t catch a break—post-LPI dysphotopsias led to suture closure, then a hyphema. What can we learn? Temporal > superior for fewer dysphotopsias. 200–400 µm—enough for patency, less light scatter. Symptoms: 2–5%, reduced by lid coverage & smaller/temporal PIs.
Image from KMK Optometry (@KMKOptometry)
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A patient wears SRx +1.00 DS -2.00 DC x 180 with a +3.00 D round 28 bifocal segment. If the top of the segment is 5 mm below the distance optical center, and the patient reads 5 mm below the top of the segment, calculate the image displacement due to the distance prescription.
9%a. 1 PD BU
63%b. 1 PD BD
6%c. 2 PD BU
22%d. 2 PD BD
67 votes • Final results
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The lens power in the vertical meridian is -1.00 D. The patient is reading 10 mm below the distance optical center. Using Prentice’s rule, PD = 1 D x 1 cm = 1 PD. Because the patient is viewing through the bottom half of the minus lens, the prism direction is BD.
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All of the following oral antibiotics may exacerbate the effects of warfarin EXCEPT:
23%a. ceftriaxone
28%b. ciprofloxacin
25%c. tetracycline
24%d. clarithromycin
102 votes • Final results
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Ciprofloxacin and clarithromycin interfere with the metabolism of warfarin, and ceftriaxone destroys the normal intestinal flora, leading to a reduction in vitamin K absorption and a higher risk of bleeding. Tetracycline does not interfere with warfarin.
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A 45-year-old female complains of bilateral burning, tearing, and foreign body sensation that worsens throughout the day OU. She also has a history of chronic dry mouth. Which test(s) is/are MOST appropriate to further evaluate this patient’s condition?
17%a. ACE and chest x-ray
1%b. Syphilis IgG
76%c. Salivary gland biopsy
6%d. ELISA and Western blot
156 votes • Final results
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Patients with a chronic dry mouth and dry eye should be evaluated for Sjogren’s syndrome with a salivary gland biopsy. ACE and chest x-ray are indicated for suspected sarcoidosis. Syphilis IgG is indicated for syphilis. ELISA and Western blot aid in the diagnosis of HIV.
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Your patient presents with unilateral eyelid ptosis that worsens at the end of the day and improves with the ice pack test. Which of the following tests is MOST appropriate to further evaluate the patient?
74%a. T3, T4, and TSH
10%b. Lumbar CT scan
15%c. ACE and chest x-ray
2%d. Fasting blood glucose
133 votes • Final results
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Approximately 5% of patients with myasthenia gravis also have thyroid disease; thus T3, T4, and TSH testing is most appropriate to perform. A chest CT scan may also be indicated, as 10% of patients with MG have a thymoma.
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A patient presents with symptoms of amaurosis fugax and a Hollenhorst plaque causing a BRAO OS. All of the following tests are indicated EXCEPT:
54%a. CT scan
4%b. carotid ultrasound
10%c. echocardiogram
31%d. FA
134 votes • Final results
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An FA is not indicated. Patients with retinal emboli, acute RAOs, or amaurosis fugax are at a greater risk for strokes. They should be referred immediately for a CT or MRI. A carotid ultrasound and cardiac studies are also warranted to determine the source of the embolus.
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Damage to which area of the sclera during strabismus surgery is MOST likely to result in globe penetration?
6%a. Posterior pole
17%b. Lamina cribrosa
69%c. Below recti tendons
8%d. Equator
121 votes • Final results
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The thinnest area of the sclera (0.3 mm) is located underneath the recti tendons and is thus most vulnerable to inadvertent globe penetration. The thickest area of the sclera is located at the posterior pole (1.0 mm). The lamina cribrosa is the weakest area of the sclera.
Which of the following ganglia provide parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland to stimulate aqueous secretion?
75%a. Pterygopalatine
2%b. Oculomotor
19%c. Trigeminal
3%d. Superior cervical
122 votes • Final results
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Parasympathetic fibers travel with the greater petrosal nerve of CN VII before synapsing at the pterygopalatine ganglion. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers join the zygomatic branch of V2, then join the lacrimal nerve of V1 to innervate the lacrimal gland.
A patient with shingles is MOST likely to have had a previous episode of which of the following?
3%a. Measles
95%b. Chicken pox
0%c. Mumps
3%d. Viral meningitis
116 votes • Final results
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Varicella zoster virus initially presents as chicken pox. After the initial infection, the zoster virus remains dormant within nerve roots. Reactivation results in shingles, which is characterized by vesicles along the affected dermatome.
Way to end Super Bowl weekend with a bang!!! @ewilhite1 you rock, and so does @chicagocollegeofoptometry!!! #KMK #Optometry #optometrystudentsrock #dominate #boardsprep #KMKlive #fututedoctors instagram.com/p/CZ7yYpCPgfC/…

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